If both and are finite, then there exist natural numbers and such that and . The union will then be the set of all these elements, which is a finite set of size at most . A finite set is by definition countable, so (which is equal to ) is countable.
Case 2: One of and is finite and the other is countably infinite.
Without loss of generality, assume that is finite and is infinite. Then we can list the elements of as and the elements of can be listed as . The union will be the set of all these elements. Since is already countably infinite, we can create a new list that includes all elements of followed by all elements of . In other words, we can create the list .
Thus if and are countable sets, then is countable.
E 29.2
We construct a bijective function . Define it by:
This function assigns every even natural number to an element in the set with the first component 0, and every odd natural number to an element in the set with the first component 1. This function is bijective, so . Thus is countably infinite.
E 29.3
In 29.3, it was proved that if and are countably infinite sets, then is also countably infinite. We now prove that if and are countable sets, then is as well. There are two remaining cases
One of or is finite and the other is countably infinite. Without loss of generality, assume is finite and is countably infinite. If has elements and is countably infinite, then each element of can be paired with all elements of , resulting in separate listings of a countably infinite set. This can be visualized as rows, each corresponding to an element of , and columns corresponding to elements of . Since a finite union of countable sets is countable, is countable.
Both and are finite. If both sets are finite, with having elements and having elements, then their Cartesian product will have elements, which is a finite number. Hence, is countable.
Thus if and are countable sets, then is as well.
E 29.4
a) Let , . . . be arbitrary sets. Let , and for each let . Assume that all of the are countable. We work by induction
Base Case: For , which is given to be countable.
Inductive Step: Assume for some that is countable. We aim to show is countable. We know . Since is countable by the inductive hypothesis, and is countable by assumption, by Theorem 29.3, the Cartesian product of two countable sets is also countable. We can show this by constructing a bijection from to , like Cantor's grid, and then using this bijection to pair elements from and to the natural numbers.
Hence, by induction, is countable for each .
b) Describe a bijective function , and prove its bijectivity.
Consider the function .
To show injectivity, assume . Then . By definition of ordered pairs, this means , , and , so .
To show surjectivity, for any element , there exists an element such that .
Hence, is bijective.
(c) Prove that if are countable, then the set is countable.
We already proved in exercise 29.3 that if and are countable sets, then is as well. Thus, by extension, we can consider the Cartesian product of and , denoted , which is countable by this previous result.
Now, since is countable and is countable, we can apply the same reasoning to . This set is the Cartesian product of two countable sets, and by the result from exercise 29.3, it is also countable.
Hence, is countable.
E 29.5
By Corollary 29.7, is countably infinite. By Theorem 29.3, is countably infinite, since both and are countably infinite. Therefore, .
E 29.6
Review the diagram above. We see that there is a systematic way to list the items in the union with no repeats in a specific order. Thus is countably infinite.
E 29.7
To prove that the set containing all finite sets of is countably infinite, we will form a bijection between and this set.
First, list all finite subsets of , first based on size and then by their least element. For example, start with the empty set, then all single-element subsets, then all two-element subsets, and so on.
We can now represent each element in this set with a natural number using binary form such that the -th digit is 1 if i is in the subset and 0 otherwise. For example, the set {1, 3} can be represented by the binary number 101. Then we can convert that binary number (base 2) to a natural number in base 10 (the example of 101 being 5).
So, we have mapped each finite subset with a unique natural number and vice versa. This establishes a bijection between the set of all finite subsets of and itself. Therefore, this set and have the same cardinality.
Hence, the set containing all finite sets of is countably infinite.