16 - The Binomial Theorem

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1

HW 16

Ben Finch

E 16.1
Proposition:

(n0)=(nn)=1

Proof:
Let nZ,n0.
By the definition of the binomial coefficient,

(n0)=n!0!(n0)!=n!n!=1

Additionally,

(nn)=n!n!(nn)!=n!n!=1

Thus we have

(n0)=(nn)=1

Proposition:

(n1)=(nn1)=n

Proof:
Let nZ,n0.
By the definition of the binomial coefficient and definition of factorial, we have:

(n1)=n!1!(n1)!=n(n1)!1!(n1)!=n1=n

Additionally:

(nn1)=n!(n1)!(n(n1))!=n(n1)!1!(n1)!=n1=n

Thus we have:

(n1)=(nn1)=n

E 16.2
Proposition:

(nk)=(nnk)

for any n,kZ.

Proof.
Let n,kZ. We have two cases:

Case 1. Suppose n<0 or k<0 or n<k. Then by the definition of the binomial coefficient,

(nk)=0

Consider two subcases for (nnk)

  1. If n<k, then nk will be negative thus by the definition of the binomial coefficient:
(nnk)=0
  1. If k<n, then based on our assumption k<0 so nk>n thus by the definition of the binomial coefficient:
(nnk)=0

In both subcases (nnk) = 0. Thus if n<0 or k<0 or n<k:

(nk)=(nnk)=0

Case 2. Suppose that nk0. Then by the definition of binomial coefficient:

(nk)=n!k!(nk)!

and

(nnk)=n!(nk)!(n(nk)!)=n!k!(nk)!

Thus we have for nk0, (nk)=(nnk).

Hence in all cases we have (nk)=(nnk)

E 16.3
Proposition.
Let n,j,kZ.

(nj)(njk)=(nk)(nkk)

Proof.

Let n,j,kZ. We have four cases to consider:

Case 1. Suppose j<0 or k<0. Then by the definition of the binomial coefficient, both (nj) and (njk) are zero. Hence,

(nj)(njk)=0(njk)=0

As (nk) and (nknj) are also zero in this case (as k<0), we also have

(nk)(nknj)=0(nknj)=0

Therefore, if j<0 or k<0, then

(nj)(njk)=(nk)(nknj)

Case 2. Suppose j+k>n. In this case, (njk) and (nknj) are zero by the definition of the binomial coefficient. Hence, both sides of the equation are zero. Hence in this case also,

(nj)(njk)=(nk)(nknj)

Case 3. Suppose j0, k0, and j+kn. By the definition of the binomial coefficient, we have

(nj)=n!j!(nj)!

and

(njk)=(nj)!k!(njk)!

Multiplying these two fractions, we get

(nj)(njk)=n!j!k!(njk)!

On the other hand, we also have

(nk)=n!k!(nk)!

and

(nknj)=(nk)!(nj)!(kj)!

Multiplying these two fractions, we get

(nk)(nknj)=n!k!(nj)!(kj)!

Thus

(nj)(njk)=(nk)(nknj)

Case 4. Suppose j>n. In this case, (nj) and (nknj) are zero by the definition of the binomial coefficient, and hence the equality holds as both sides of the equation are zero.

Hence, in all cases, we have (nj)(njk)=(nk)(nknj).

E 16.4
Proposition:
Prove that for any integer n0

k=0n(nk)=2n

Proof.
Let nZ, n0
Fix x=y=1 and plug into the binomial theorem. We get:

(1+1)n=k=0n(nk)1nk1k

Simplifying, we get:

2n=k=0n(nk)

Hence, we've proven the proposition.

E 16.5
Proposition:
For any integer n0,

k=0n(1)k(nk)=0

Proof.
Let nZ and n0.
Fix a=1 and b=1. Then by the binomial theorem:

(11)n=k=0n(nk)1nk(1)k=k=0n(1)k(nk)

And since 11=0, it follows that:

k=0n(1)k(nk)=0

So the proposition is proven.

E 16.6
Fix n=8, k=3, a=2x, b=3y.

Coefficient = (83)28333

So, Coefficient = 563227

Therefore, the coefficient is 563227=43008.

E 16.7
Proposition:
Let n,kZ. Prove that

k(nk)=n(n1k1)

Proof.
Let n,kZ. We have two cases.

Case 1: n0 or k0 or k>n:
Then by definition of the binomial coefficient, both sides of the equation will be 0.

Case 2: 0kn:
By definition of the binomial coefficient, we have:

k(nk)=kn!k!(nk)!=n!(k1)!(nk)!

We also have

n(n1k1)=n(n1)!(k1)!((n1)(k1))!=n!(k1)!(nk)!

Thus we have

k(nk)=n(n1k1)

.

E 16.8
a)
0)

(00)=0!0!(00)!=1
(21)=2!1!(21)!=2
(42)=4!2!(42)!=6
(63)=6!3!(63)!=20
(84)=8!4!(84)!=70

b)
Proof.
Let nN. We aim to prove that (2nn) is an even integer.

By Theorem 16.4:

(2nn)=(2n1n1)+(2n1n)

By exercise 16.2:

(2n1n)=(2n1n1)$$.Therefore,wecanrewritetheequationas:

\begin{align*}
\binom{2n}{n} &= \binom{2n-1}{n-1} + \binom{2n-1}{n-1}\
&= 2\binom{2n-1}{n-1}
\end

Since$(2n1n1)$isaninteger,$(2nn)$iseven.$$E16.9a)Proof.Let$n,kZ$,$n>8$.BaseCasesFix$n=9$.1.$k=0,(90)=1<292=128$2.$k=1,(91)=9<292=128$3.$k=2,(92)=36<292=128$4.$k=3,(93)=84<292=128$5.$k=4,(94)=126<292=128$6.$k=5,(95)=126<292=128$7.$k=6,(96)=84<292=128$8.$k=7,(97)=36<292=128$9.$k=8,(98)=9<292=128$10.$k=9,(99)=1<292=128$InductiveStepAssume$(nk)<2n2$.Weaimtoprove$(n+1j)<2n1$.Bytheorem16.4:

\begin{align*}
\binom{n+1}{j} &= \binom{n}{j-1} + \binom{n}{j}
\end

bytheinductivestep:

\begin{align*}
\binom{n}{j-1} + \binom{n}{j} &< 2^{n-2}+2^{n-2}\
&= 2^{n-1}
\end

Thuswehavebymathematicalinduction$(n+1j)<2n1$.$$b)Let$n,kZ$.Let$n>7$.Therearetwocases:Case1:If$k<0$or$k>n$,thenbydefinitionofthebinomialexpansion,$(nk)=0<(n3)!$Case2$k>0$and$k<n$.Weworkbyinduction.BaseCases:Fix$n=8$1.$k=0$:$(80)=1<5!=120$2.$k=1$:$(81)=8<5!=120$3.$k=2$:$(82)=28<5!=120$4.$k=3$:$(83)=56<5!=120$5.$k=4$:$(84)=70<5!=120$6.$k=5$:$(85)=56<5!=120$7.$k=6$:$(86)=28<5!=120$8.$k=7$:$(87)=8<5!=120$9.$k=8$:$(88)=1<5!=120$InductiveStepLet$zN$,$z8$Assume$P(z)$istrue,thus$(zk)<(z3)!$Weaimtoprove$P(z+1):(z+1k)<(z2)!$

\begin{align*}
\binom{z}{k} + \binom{z}{k -1} &= \binom{z+1}{k}\
&= 2((z -3)!)\
&< (z-2)(z-3)!\
&= (z-2)!
\end

Thusbymathematicalinduction,$P(n)$istrueforall$nZ$.$$